REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous daf Meilah 7
ME'ILAH 7 (6 Kislev) - Dedicated in honor of the Yahrzeit of Eliezer ben Reb
Shraga Feivel Marmorstein by his nephew, whom he raised like his own child
after the war, Mr. David Kornfeld.
(a) Rebbi Yochanan qualifies Rebbi Akiva's ruling ('Zerikah Mo'eles
le'Yotzei'), by confining it to where only some of the Basar left the
Why is that?
(b) Rav Asi cited his Babylonian colleagues however, who said 'Mechashvin al
ha'Avud ve'al ha'Saruf'.
What did they mean by that?
(c) How does this clash with Rebbi Yochanan?
(d) What did Rebbi Yochanan reply?
(a) On a previous occasion it seems, Rav Asi had asked Rebbi Yochanan about
a case where the Kohen had a Machsheves Pigul on spilt blood.
the case be, besides where the Kohen thought whilst pouring the Shirayim on
to the Yesod that he would 'eat' a k'Zayis of that Shirayim the next day?
(b) Rebbi Zeira resolved the She'eilah by citing 'Elel' (the cervical
ligament) that Rebbi Yochanan had taught them citing the Mishnah in Chulin.
The Tana there says that 'Elel' is Metamei Tum'as Ochlin but not Tum'as
Why is it not Metamei Tum'as Neveilos?
(c) What problem does this create for Rav Asi?
(d) How do we initially reconcile the Mishnah in Chulin with the 'Beraisa'
(cited by Rav Asi's colleagues) 'Mechashvin al ha'Avud ve'al ha'Saruf'?
(a) How does Rava ultimately reconcile them by amending the Beraisa?
(b) What does he mean by that?
(c) What does Rav Papa say about 'Zerikah Mo'eles le'Yotz'ei' (according to
Rebbi Akiva) regarding Dam?
(d) We support Rav Papa with a Beraisa.
What does the Beraisa subsequently
rule in a case, where after the blood left the Azarah and was returned, the
Kohen had a Machsheves Pigul regarding ...
- ... Kodshei Kodshim?
- ... Kodshim Kalim?
(a) Rebbi Akiva in our Mishnah states (in connection with the Mosar Chatas)
'ke'Shem she'Damah Poter es Besarah, Kach Poter es B'sar Chavertah'.
does Rebbi Elazar qualify this ruling?
(b) What is the reason for the distinction? Why, if the same Kohen Shechted
both Chata'os one after the other, would the Zerikas ha'Dam of one of them
not cover the Basar of the second one?
(a) What did Rebbi Shimon reply when a Zaken asked him in K'far Pani whether
Rebbi Akiva really said 'Zerikah Mo'eles le'Yotzei'?
(b) What did his Chaverim in Galil comment, when he repeated this statement
(c) And what did Rebbi Akiva reply, when Rebbi Shimon repeated to him his
(a) Among his statements, Rebbi Akiva says 'Shachat Sh'teihen ve'Harei Daman
Munach be'Kosos, Mo'alin bi'Shteihen'.
Answers to questions
Why is that?
(b) What can we extrapolate from the Lashon 'Shachat Sh'teihen'?
(c) What are the ramifications of this fact?
(a) What did Resh Lakish Amar Rav Hoshaya mean when he described Rebbi
Akiva's statement as 'Teshuvah Genuvah'?
(b) What did Rebbi Yochanan say about that?
(c) And he based his query on a case of two Ashamos that were designated
'le'Acharayus' and that were both Shechted.
What does Rebbi Yochanan
consider obvious in a case where the Kohen then brought the Emurin of one of
them on the Mizbe'ach before performing Zerikas ha'Dam on the other one?
(d) He presented a case of two Ashamos.
How do we know that the same would
apply to two Chata'os?
(a) What does Rebbi Yochanan prove with this (See Rabeinu Gershom)?
(b) How do we know that it is because they are considered like two bodies?
Perhaps it is because Emurin that are placed on the Mizbe'ach before the
Zerikas ha'Dam must be removed? What did Ula say to the contrary (in
connection with Emurei Kodshei Kalim)?
(c) Alternatively, Ula's ruling proves that 'Mo'alin bi'Sheteihen' is not
due to the fact they are considered like one body.
Then what is Rebbi
(d) If on the one hand, the Zerikah of one of the Chata'os exempts even the
Basar of the other one from Me'ilah, why, on the other, do we say 'Im Alu,
(a) What was Resh Lakish's response to Rebbi Yochanan's Kashya?
(b) What did Rebbi Yochanan mean when he commented 'Ketzatztinun le'Riglohi
(c) How else might one read the last word in Rebbi Yochanan's comment?
(a) Our Mishnah teaches us that Zerikas Damim by Kodshei Kodshim is
sometimes Lehakeil and sometimes Lehachmir.
What about Kodshim Kalim?
(b) If before the Zerikah, both ...
- ... the Emurim and the Basar of Kodshei Kodshim are subject to Me'ilah, what change takes place after the Zerikah?
- ... the Emurim and the Basar of Kodshei Kalim are not subject to Me'ilah, what change takes place after the Zerikah?
(a) With regard to Pigul, Nosar and Tum'ah however, both Kodshei Kodshim and
Kodshim Kalim share the same Din.
What is the corollary between Pigul,
Nosar and Tum'ah and Zerikah?
(b) What problem do we have with the Seifa de'Reisha 've'Ein Mo'alin
be'Basar'? What ought the Tana to have said?
(c) How do we counter this? Why does the Tana say 'Ein Mo'alin' even though
there is no Isur either?
(a) We make the same inference from the Seifa de'Seifa 've'Ein Mo'alin
be'Basar', Ha Isura Ika'.
***Hadran Alach 'Kodshei Kodshim'***
Answers to questions
Why can we not give the same answer as we gave
in the Reisha?
(b) Rebbi Chanina therefore answers 'le'Yotz'in, ve'Rebbi Akiva Hi'. What
does this mean?
(c) But did Rebbi Akiva not say 'Zerikah Mo'eles le'Yotzei'?