1)

(a)We learned earlier that it is forbidden to be intimate for the first time on Friday night or on Motzei Shabbos. What is the reason for the prohibition of Friday night?

(b)Rebbi Zeira initially ascribes the reason for the prohibition on Motzei Shabbos to Cheshbonos. What does this mean? From where do we learn this prohibition?

(c)What is the problem with this explanation, based on a statement by Rav Chisda and Rav Hamnuna?

1)

(a)We learned earlier that it is forbidden to be intimate for the first time on Friday night or on Motzei Shabbos. The reason for the prohibition of Friday night is - because Bi'ah with a Besulah causes a wound.

(b)Rebbi Zeira initially ascribes the reason for the prohibition on Motzei Shabbos to Cheshbonos - meaning that he might make an inventory of things that he needs for the wedding feast, which is forbidden, due to the Pasuk in Yeshayah "v'Daber Davar" (even if one does not write it down).

(c)The problem with this explanation is the statement by Rav Chisda and Rav Hamnuna - that Cheshbonos shel Mitzvah are permitted on Shabbos.

2)

(a)What do various Amor'im say about Mitzvah calculations, undertaking to give Tzedakah, Piku'ach Nefesh and looking into communal needs? What do they all have in common?

(b)And what does Tana d'bei Menashye say about ...

1. ... arranging a Shiduch for one's son or daughter?

2. ... organizing with a Rebbe to teach one's son Torah?

3. ... employing a tutor to teach him a trade?

2)

(a)Various Amora'im say that Mitzvah calculations, undertaking to give Tzedakah, Piku'ach Nefesh and looking into communal needs - all fall under the category of Cheshbonos shel Mitzvah, and are therefore permitted on Shabbos.

(b)And by the same token, Tana d'bei Menashya permits on Shabbos ...

1. ... arranging a Shiduch for one's son or daughter.

2. ... organizing a Rebbe to teach one's son Torah, and ...

3. ... employing a tutor to teach him a trade.

3)

(a)What reason then, did Rebbi Zeira really give to explain the prohibition of marrying on Motzei Shabbos?

(b)Nevertheless, we are not afraid that, when Yom Kippur falls on Monday, someone may Shecht a bird on Shabbos for Erev Yom Kippur. What if we were?

(c)One reason for this distinction is because, whereas for a wedding, one needs to prepare a feast for all the guests, on Yom Kippur, people are only preparing for their own immediate family. What is the second reason?

(d)We initially ascribed the prohibition of marrying (performing Bi'ah) on Friday night, to the prohibition of making a wound. What reason do we give now?

3)

(a)Rebbi Zeira's real reason for the prohibition of marrying on Motzei Shabbos is - because we are afraid that one might take a bird for the feast and Shecht it on Shabbos.

(b)Nevertheless, we are not afraid that, when Yom Kippur falls on Monday, someone may Shecht a bird on Shabbos for Erev Yom Kippur. If we were - Chazal would have postponed it until Tuesday.

(c)One reason for this distinction is because, whereas for a wedding, one needs to prepare a feast for all the guests, on Yom Kippur, people are only preparing for their own immediate family. Alternatively - when Erev Yom Kippur falls on Sunday, one has the whole night to Shecht, whereas in the case of a wedding that is due to take place on Motzei Shabbos, there is not so much time available.

(d)We initially ascribed the prohibition of marrying (performing Bi'ah) on Friday night, to the prohibition of making a wound. Now, we change it to the same reason as the prohibition of marrying (performing Bi'ah) on Friday night - because we are afraid that, finding himself short of meat for the feast, he might take a bird and Shecht it after Shabbos has already entered.

4)

(a)We learned in our Mishnah that a Besulah gets married on Wednesday. The b'nei Yeshiva asked whether they consummated the marriage straightway or only after nightfall. Why might they be obligated to wait until nightfall?

(b)We resolve the She'eilah from Bar Kapara in a Beraisa. What does bar Kapara say about ...

1. ... a Besulah who marries on Wednesday?

2. ... an Almanah who marries on Thursday?

(c)How do we resolve our She'eilah from there?

4)

(a)We learned in our Mishnah that a Besulah gets married on Wednesday. The bnei Yeshiva asked whether they were permitted to consummate the marriage straightway, or whether they had to wait until after nightfall - because of the fear that, if time (however short) is permitted to elapse between the Chasan's discovery that the Kalah is not a Besulah and the time that Beis-Din convene, the Chasan's anger will abate and he will forgive her; whereas if he delays the Bi'ah until nightfall, he will strike whilst the iron is hot.

(b)We resolve the She'eilah from bar Kapara in a Beraisa, who says that ...

1. ... a Besulah who marries on Wednesday - consummates the marriage on Thursday, because of the Berachah that Hash-m bestowed upon the fish on that day.

2. ... an Almanah who marries on Thursday - consummates it on Friday, because of the Berachah that Hash-m bestowed upon Adam on that day.

(c)Clearly then, a Besulah who married on Wednesday, would consummate the marriage on Thursday only because of the Berachah (which is a good idea, but not obligatory. From which we can infer that, if they did care about the Berachah, they would be permitted to consummate it on Wednesday (because Chazal were not concerned that his anger might abate so soon after the event).

5)

(a)One of the reasons that an Almanah performs Bi'ah on Thursday (in spite of the Berachah of the fish) is because the Berachah that was given to Adam is more worthwhile. What is the other reason?

(b)One of the differences between the two reasons is in the case of a man who is out of work (to whom 'Shakdu' is not applicable). What is the other?

5)

(a)One of the reasons that an Almanah performs Bi'ah on Thursday (in spite of the Berachah of the fish) is because the Berachah that was given to Adam is more worthwhile. The other reason is - because of a Takanas Chachamim ('Shakdu') protecting an Almanah, to ensure that the man does not just consummate the marriage on Thursday, and then go off to work on Friday. So they initiated the marriage on Thursday and the Bi'ah on Friday, followed by Shabbos, where he cannot go to work anyway (allowing three days of celebration).

(b)One of the differences between the two reasons is in the case of a man who is out of work (to whom 'Shakdu' is not applicable). The other is - when Yom Tov falls on Friday, and he cannot go to work anyway (in both cases, they will be permitted to consummate the marriage already on Thursday, should the reason for the prohibition be because of 'Shakdu'.

6)

(a)What does bar Kapara extrapolate from the two Pesukim "af Yadi Yasdah Aretz vi'Yemini Tafchah Shamayim" (Yeshayah) and "Mikdash, Hash-m Kon'nu Yadecha" (Beshalach)?

(b)How will bar Kapara then explain the Pasuk in Tehilim ...

1. ... "v'Yabeshes Yadav Yatzaru" (in the plural)?

2. ... "Yadav Yatzaru" (in the plural)?

(c)And how will he explain the Pasuk there "u'Ma'aseh Yadav Magid ha'Raki'a" (in the plural)? What is this Pasuk then referring to?

(d)What was the name of the Bavli who asked him these Kashyos?

6)

(a)bar Kapara extrapolates from the two Pesukim "af Yadi Yasdah Eretz, vi'Yemini Tafchah Shamayim" and "Mikdash, Hash-m Konenu Yadecha" - that the work of Tzadikim who built the Beis Hamikdash) is greater than that of Hash-m (seeing as the reference to Hand in the first Pasuk is in the singular, and in the second Pasuk, in the plural). See Agados Maharsha.

(b)bar Kapara explains that the Pasuk ...

1. ... "v'Yabeshes Yadav Yatzaru" - is written without a 'Yud' (conforming with what he just said).

2. ... "Yadav Yatzaru" (in the plural) - refers to the fingers of Hash-m's Hand (like the Pasuk writes in Tehilim "Ki Er'eh Shamecha Ma'aseh Etzbe'osecha"), as Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak explains.

(c)He explains that the Pasuk there "u'Ma'aseh Yadav Magid ha'Raki'a" (in the plural) - refers to the Tefilos of the Tzadikim. And "Magid ha'Raki'a" - refers to the rain that the heaven sends down, demonstrating their righteousness.

(d)The name of the Bavli who asked bar Kapara these Kashyos - was none other than Rebbi Chiya.

5b----------------------------------------5b

7)

(a)How does bar Kapara explain the Pasuk in Ki Setzei "v'Yased Tiheyeh Lecha al Azeinecha"?

(b)This is also how Rebbi Elazar explains the pointy shape of the fingers. How do we know, that when he asked why the fingers are like pegs, he did he not mean to ask why they are separated into five separate entities and are not joined together (like the paws of most animals)?

(c)The five fingers are called Zeres, Kemitzah, Amah, Etzba and Godel. What purpose do the Zeres and the Kemitzah serve?

(d)The Amah is to measure the Amos of the various building projects of the Beis Hamikdash and of the holy vessels, and the Etzba for sprinkling the blood of the Chatas. What is the main function of the Godel?

7)

(a)bar Kapara explains the Pasuk "v'Yased Tiheyeh Lecha al Azeinecha" - by changing the vowels of "Azeinecha" to read "Ozn"echa", to teach us that when someone hears something that he should not, he must place his fingers (the pegs to which the Pasuk is referring) in his ears.

(b)That is also how Rebbi Elazar explained the pointy shape of the fingers. We know that, when he asked why the fingers are like pegs, he cannot have meant to ask why they are separated into five individual entities and are not joined together (like the paws of most animals) - because we already know that each finger has a specific purpose (from the fact that each one has a different name - as we shall now see).

(c)The five fingers are called Zeres, Kemitzah, Amah, Etzba and Godel. The Zeres - is used to measure the size of the Choshen (which is one Zeres [half an Amah] by one Zeres), and the Kemitzah, to contain the Kometz of a Korban Minchah.

(d)The Amah is to measure the Amos of the various building projects of the Beis Hamikdash and of the holy vessels, and the Etzba for sprinkling the blood of the Chatas. The main function of the Godel is - in order to place on it the blood and the oil during the seven days of Milu'im, on the right Godel of the Kohen Gadol , and also on the right Godel of the Metzora during his purification ceremony.

8)

(a)What reason does Tana d'Bei Rebbi Yishmael give to explain why only the lobe of the ear is soft?

(b)Why should therefore be careful not to listen to idle chatter?

8)

(a)Tana d'Bei Rebbi Yishmael explains that only the lobe of the ear is soft - so that, when a person hears something that he should not, he can press it into his ear.

(b)One should be careful not to listen to idle chatter - because, the softest of the limbs, the (lobes of the) ear will be the first to be affected by the fires of Gehinom.

9)

(a)The Bnei Yeshiva asked whether it is permitted to make the first Bi'ah with a Besulah on Shabbos. But did we not learn a Beraisa above which forbids it?

(b)In the first Lashon of the She'eilah, if the blood of Besulim is considered intrinsically joined to the body, then it is certainly forbidden, because extracting it will entail causing a wound. Why might it be forbidden, even if we assume the blood to be merely deposited in the body?

(c)On the other hand, it might still be permitted, assuming that we hold like Rebbi Shimon. What does Rebbi Shimon say?

(d)On what assumption will it then be permitted?

(e)Why is this not a case of 'Psik Reisha' (which even Rebbi Shimon concedes, is forbidden)?

9)

(a)The Bnei Yeshiva asked whether it is permitted to make the first Bi'ah with a Besulah on Shabbos. As for the Beraisa that we learned above which forbids it - either they were not aware of it, or they were not certain whether it is Halachah or not (See also Tosfos DH 'Mahu').

(b)In the first Lashon of the She'eilah, if the blood of Besulim is considered intrinsically joined to the body, then the first Bi'ah is certainly forbidden, because extracting it will entail causing a wound. Even if we assume the blood to be merely deposited in the body however, it might be forbidden - if it is the opening he wants (because creating an opening is a form of building).

(c)On the other hand, it might still be permitted, assuming that we hold like Rebbi Shimon - who permits a Melachah that is performed inadvertently ('Davar she'Ein Miskaven'), and ...

(d)... assuming that what he wants is the blood.

(e)This is not a case of 'Psik Reisha' ([inevitable], which even Rebbi Shimon concedes, is forbidden) - because, as will be explained later, it is possible to avoid both extracting the blood and making an opening).

10)

(a)Then why might it be forbidden?

(b)On what grounds might it in fact, be permitted, even if the Halachah is like Rebbi Yehudah?

(c)On what basis might the Bi'ah of a Besulah be considered Mekalkel (destructive)?

(d)Bearing in mind that Rebbi Shimon holds 'Mekalkel ba'Chaburah (by a wound) Chayav', why do we take for granted that if it is considered Mekalkel, the Bi'ah will be permitted?

10)

(a)It might be forbidden - if we rule like Rebbi Yehudah, who holds 'Davar she'Ein Miskaven, Asur'.

(b)It might in fact, be permitted, even if the Halachah is like Rebbi Yehudah - if we consider the opening of the womb to be Mekalkel (destructive [see Tosfos DH 'Im Timtzi Lomar']).

(c)The Bi'ah of a Besulah might be considered Mekalkel (destructive) - because a Be'ulah is worth less than a Besulah (which is evident from the fact that the Kesuvah of a Besulah is two hundred Zuz, whereas that of a Be'ulah is only one hundred).

(d)Despite the fact that Rebbi Shimon holds 'Mekalkel ba'Chaburah (by a wound) Chayav', we take for granted that if it is considered Mekalkel, the Bi'ah will be permitted - because even Rebbi Shimon, who is strict by Mekalkel, is only strict by 'Mekalkel ba'Chaburah' (and we currently assume that 'Dam Mifkad Pakid', in which case there is no wound).

11)

(a)In the second Lashon, we assume that the blood of a Besulah is intrinsically joined ('Dam Chiburei Michbar'). Why might the Bi'ah nevertheless be permitted?

(b)How is it possible for the Bi'ah be permitted even we hold like Rebbi Yehudah regarding 'Davar she'Ein Miskaven'?

(c)What is the then the side that it should be forbidden?

11)

(a)In the second Lashon, we assume that the blood of a Besulah is intrinsically joined ('Dam Chiburei Michbar'). The Bi'ah might nevertheless be permitted - if we assume that a. it is not even the blood that he wants, but his own pleasure, and b. that the Halachah is like Rebbi Shimon ('Davar she'Ein Miskaven, Mutar').

(b)The Bi'ah will be permitted even we hold like Rebbi Yehudah regarding 'Davar she'Ein Miskaven' - if we consider it a case of 'Mekalkel ba'Chaburah', where Rebbi Yehudah holds Patur.

(c)It will nevertheless be forbidden if we hold like R. Yehudah regarding 'Davar she'Ein Miskaven', and like Rebbi Shimon regarding 'Mekalkel ba'Chaburah'.

12)

(a)In Bei Rav, they cited Rav as the one who permits the first Bi'ah, and Shmuel as the one who forbids it? What did they say in Neherda'a?

(b)What Siman did Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak give to remember where they said what?

12)

(a)In Bei Rav, they cited Rav as the one who permits the first Bi'ah, and Shmuel as the one who forbids it. In Neherda'a however, they reversed the opinions.

(b)The sign that Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak gave to remember who said what is - that each one strove to be lenient for himself (i.e. d'Bei Rav quoted Rav as being the lenient one, whilst in Neherda'a (Shmuel's town), they cited Shmuel.

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