On 6b, the gemara uses "Kol Cherem" to include "misos kalos shenisna shiggigasam lechaparah" in the group of items for which money may be used (instead) for chaparah. Rashi gives an example of "Rotzaich deshiggigaso golah". Why does rashi use this example, when Rotzeich is already explicitly precluded from using cash- see "Bamedidbar" 35:32. I thought of two answers I don't think are correct and am hoping that you will be able to provide a different answer. 1st incorrect answer: 35:32 is talking about where the rotzaich is already in the "ear hamiklat" whereas this pasuk excludes using cash before he has left for the "ear hamiklat". 2nd incorrect answer: 35:32 is talking about not being able to buy his way out of remaining in the "ear hamiklat"- nothing to do with "kapras avonos", whereas this pasuk is also excluding the possibility of kapparh via money (if it were even possible to say that he could pay cash for kapparah, acheive kapparah, but still be required to serve his term out in the "ear hamiklat").
Daniel Gray, Toronto, Canada
Your suggestions do not really answer your questions, for our Gemara is using the Pasuk to tell us that a Rotze'ach b'Mezid cannot pay his way out. The example of "Rotze'ach d'Shegagaso Goleh" is to show a Kula in the severity of Rotze'ach, such that we might have thought that you could be Podeh a Rotze'ach b'Mezid. However, your question stands, for the Pasuk in Parshas Mas'ei clearly excludes Rotze'ach b'Mezid from Kofer, as all of the Rishonim and Monei ha'Mitzvos learn that the first Pasuk (35:31) is talking about Rotze'ach b'Mezid and the second about Rotze'ach b'Shogeg.
This question is asked by the Gemara in Kesuvos 37b and answered there on 38a.
(Warm Regards back from Yakov Chanan Tavin and Yisroel Shaw. Yes, we are still with the Kollel. All the best, -Yisroel.)