hebrew
1)

Having stated "Vechishav im Koneihu", why does the Torah see fit to add "Im Od Rabos ba'Shanim ... " (and "ve'Im Me'at Nish'ar ba'Shanim" in the following Pasuk)?

1.

Rashi: The Torah is simply clarifying its previous statement 1 - that the accurate assessment that one makess needs to be based on the remaining years until the Yovel.

2.

Seforno: To teach us that one deducts from the total the number of years that the Eved Ivri worked, 2 irrespective of the fact that if many years remain until the Yovel, he would have become more experienced and produced better work, and that, if few years remain, the work that he did was not on a par with the work that he would have performed had he remained until the Yovel.


1

Refer to 25:50:1:1.

2

As we explained above Refer to 25:50:2:1*.

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