hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah see fit to state "Sheish Shanim Tizra Sadecha ... "?

1.

Ramban #1: It is the way the Torah normally speaks. 1

2.

Ramban #2 (citing Yerushalmi in Kil'ayim): It comes to teach us that someone who works his land in the Shemitah transgresses an Asei 2 (as well as the La'av in the following Pasuk.

3.

Ramban #3 (citing the Mechilta in Mishpatim) and Seforno: When Yisrael do the will of Hashem they experience one Shemitah (per seven-year years), as the Torah writes "Sheish Shanim Tizra es Artzecha ... "; but when they don't, they have to keep four Shemitos - by leaving the land fallow in the first, third and fifth years, 3 followed by the Shemitah in the seventh.


1

Ramban: See for example, Shemos 20:9, and Shemos 23:10.

2

Ramban: Sheish Shanim Tizra Sadecha", 've'Lo ba'Shevi'is' - because a La'av that one extrapolates from an Asei is an Asei.

3

Seforno: See Bava Basra, 36b.

2)

What are the implications of "Ve'asafta es Tevu'asah"?

1.

Rashbam: It implies that, during the Shemitah, one is obligated to declare one's produce Hefker. 1


1

Tto allow anyone to gather it in.

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