1)

What are the implications of "asher Lo ha'Bayis"?

1.

Yoma, 14a: It confines Nig'ei Batim to a house which the owner fully possesses - to preclude the period of time

1

See Torah Temimah, note 119.

2

Refer to 14:34:7:1**.

3

Oznayim la'Torah: Otherwise, it ought tohave said 'u'Va Ba'al ha'Bayis'.

4

Refer to 14:35:4:1*.

2)

Why does the Torah write "Vehigid la'Kohen" and not 've'Amar"

1.

Sifra: To teach us that ot is not enough to say to the Kohen "ke'Nega Nir'ah li ... ", but, upon the prompting of the Kohen, he must must inform him of the details of how the Nega came about.

3)

Why does the Torah add the prefix 'Kaf' in the word "ke'Nega... "?

1.

Rashi: Because even a Talmid-Chacham who knows for sure that it is Tzara'as, is not permitted to declare it as such. 1 Only the Kohen may do so.

1

See Ozanayim la'Torah, DH 'ke'Nega Nir'eh lo ba'Bayis', who, citing the Tos. Yom-Tov, gives many reasons for this

4)

Why doe the Torah add the word ke'Nega Nir'ah Li"

1.

Mo'ed Katan, 8a: To extrapolate "Li", 've'Lo le'Ori'

1

See also Torah Temimah, note 125, who elaborates

5)

Why does ythe Torah add the word "ba'Bayis"?

1.

Nedarim, 56a: To incorporate a balcony (Yatzi'a) 1 and an attic in the Din of Nega Batim. 2

1

An alternative text reads

6)

What are the implications of 'ba'Bayis"?

1.

Sifra: It implies that the Nega appeared on the inside walls of the house, 1 but if it appeared only on the outside, the house is Tahor.

1

See Torah Temimah, note 127.

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