1)

What are the connotations of the words "K'sav l'cha es ha'Devarim ha'Eileh"?

1.

Rashi: It implies that one is only permitted to transcribe the written Torah, but not the oral Torah (wheres "Al-Pi ha'Devarim ha'Eileh" implies that only the oral Torah may be cited orally, 1 but not the written Torah - Gitin, 60b). 2

2.

Ramban #1 and Da'as Zekenim: It refers to the Seifer ha'Beris, 3 which presumably they accepted with 'Na'aseh ve'Nishma' and which Moshe then read out to the people. 4 Since Yisrael broke the covenant that Hashem made with them at Matan Torah, Hashem had to enter into a new covenant with them 5 which He would not break; and it was to that end that He now asked Moshe to write up the conditions of the new covenant.

3.

Seforno: Despite the fact that, before the sin of the Eigel, Hashem had promised to give Moshe the Luchos that He had prepared and the Torah and Mitzvos that He had written (incorporating the entire written Torah), now that they had sinned, He would have to carve the second Luchos 6 and write the Torah and Mitzvos himself.

4.

Rashbam: It is referring to the prohibitions of following other gods, entering into a covenant with the inhabitants of the land and of marrying their daughters and to the Mitzvah of Aliyah le'Regel, 7 upon which the covenant between Yisrael and Hashem depends, as the Pasuk goes on to explain.


1

See Torah Temimah, note 39.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 40, who elaborates at length.

3

As hinted (but not clearly mentioned) in the Pasuk.

4

As occurred above (24:7), and which we can assume occurred here too (Ramban). Refer also to 10:1:4:1.

5

Which did not require the participation of Yisrael, stating only that Hashem had pardoned Yisrael and the relevant conditions (Ramban). See also the first Ramban in B'har (Rav Chavel's footnotes).

6

See 34:1.

7

Mentioned earlier. See 34:11-23 (Rashbam).

2)

Why did Hashem insert the word "K'sav l'cha"?

1.

Nedarim, 38a: Just as "P'sal l'cha" implies that the shavings of the Luchos belong to Moshe, so too "K'sav l'cha" implies that the Torah 1 belongs to Moshe and his descendents exclusively - and it is due to his generous nature that he gave it over to Yisrael.


1

The power of Pilpul - See Torah Temimah, note 41.

3)

What is the second half of the Pasuk - "Ki al-Pi ha'Devarim ha'Eileh karatcha Itcha B'ris" - coming to teach us?

1.

Ramban: Refer to 34:27:1:2-4.

2.

Seforno: Refer to 34:27:1:3.

3.

Rashbam: Refer to 34:27:1:4.

4.

Gitin 60b #1: It teaches us that Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu made a covenant with Yisrael over the oral Torah 1 exclusively.

5.

Gitin, 60b #2. Refer to 3:27:1:1*.

6.

Gitin, 60b #3: It implies that the majority of the Torah was given orally 2 and it is only the minority that is written.

7.

Yerushalmi Pe'ah, 2:4: It teaches us that the oral Torah is more precious to Hashem than the written one. 3

8.

Nedarim, 32a: It teaches the greatness of B'ris Milah, by virtue of the fact that the Torah places it on a par with the rest of the Torah. 4


1

Mishnas R. Aharon (4 p.38): Proof of this lies in the fact that the written Torah was given in seventy languages -for the seventy nations, whereas the oral Torah was given only for Yisrael. See also Torah Temimah, mnote 44.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 43.

3

See Torah Temimah, note 46.

4

See Torah Temimah, note 45.

4)

Seeing as the B'ris Hashem was entering into was with Yisrael, why did He use the word "Itcha" (in the singular)?

1.

Ramban: Because it was on account of Moshe that He made the covenant with Yisrael.

5)

Why is this Pasuk placed after the Isur of Basar be'Chalav?

1.

Hadar Zekenim: Bcause when Hashem told Moshe to write the second Luchos, the angels protested that the Torah should not to be given to man, 1 until Moshe reminded them that Yisrael do not eat meat and milk, but they did - when they visited Avraham Avinu. At which Hashem declared that this is a winning answer, and that, based on it, He will make a B'ris with Yisrael.


1

Midrash Tehilim 8: In particular, to Yisrael, since they did not observe the first ones.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

6)

Rashi writes that one may not write the oral Torah. What is the reason?

1.

Moshav Zekenim: If we would write it, Nochrim could copy it and say that Torah was given to them. It is therefore preferable for it to remain concealed, so that it remains confined to Yisrael.

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