1)

Why did Yaakov call the name of the Mizbe'ach that he built, "Kel Elokei Yisrael'"?

1.

Rashi #1, Ramban #1, Hadar Zekenim #1 and Rashbam: Because Hashem was with Yaakov and saved him from his enemies, he declared that the One who is G-d is his G-d (and his name is Yisrael). 1 So whenever anyone mentioned the Mizbe'ach, he would remember the praise of Hashem. 2

2.

Rashi #2, Ramban #2, citing Megilah 18a, Hadar Zekenim #1: It was actually Hashem who called Yaakov 'El.' 3

3.

Seforno: What the Torah is saying is that in his prayer to Hashem, he undertook to accept Hashem as his G-d. 4

4.

Targum Onkelos: What the Torah means is that Yaakov sacrificed to Hashem, the G-d of Yisrael.

5.

Targum Yonasan: It means that after setting up a Mizbe'ach, Yaakov separated Ma'aser from everything that he owned before Hashem, the G-d of Yisrael.

6.

Oznayim la'Torah: It is inconceivable that when Yaakov referred to "Elokei Yisrael," he was referring to himself. 5 He must have therefore been referring to his children - who would from now on adopt the title 'Bnei Yisrael,' and he was praying that Hashem should henceforth be known as 'Elokei Yisrael.'

7.

Malbim: Yaakov had vowed to offer on a Mizbe'ach in Beis El. He thought that the place causes Shechinah to dwell - "Mah Nora ha'Makom ha'Zeh" (28:17)! He now erred to think that he himself causes Shechinah to dwell, wherever he is, so he can fulfill his vow here. 6 Hashem caused the episode with Dinah so he would have to leave there, and fulfill his vow.

8.

Ha'amek Davar: He called himself Yisrael, so Hashem is Elokei Yisrael. He was punished for this via the episode with Dinah. The angel said that he will be called Yisrael, but Hashem did not yet call him Yisrael. Chachamim (Chulin 101b) hold that he was not yet called Yisrael. 7


1

Rashi says that the Mizbe'ach is not called Elokei Yisrael. I.e. Yaakov did not ascribe Divinity to it. Rather, he called it by Hashem's name to commemorate that Hashem saved him (R. Yaakov Kanizal).

2

In similar vein, Moshe Rabeinu called the name of the Mizbe'ach that he built, "Hashem Nisi" (See Shemos 17:16). See also Ramban who cites this as the custom to issue names (of people, angels, and towns) that convey the praise of Hashem.

3

Hadar Zekenim - Hashem called Yaakov a name derived from "Kel," as in the verse "Eilei ha'Aretz" (Melachim II 24:15).Rashi quotes here the Pasuk in Yirmeyahu (23:29), which compares Torah to rock that is shattered by a hammer. So too can the words of Torah be explained in many diverse ways.

4

Refer to 28:21:2:3.

5

Oznayim la'Torah: Since Hashem does not attach His Name to Tzadikim during their lifetimes.

6

His vow included to make the rock (that he erected for a Matzevah) Beis Elokim (28:22)! How could he fulfill this here? (PF)

7

Harchev Davar: Even though it says "Nevalah Asah b'Yisrael" (34:7), the nation was already called so, but not every individual from the nation merited (based on his deeds) to be called a Yisrael. The verse of Gid ha'Nasheh refers to the children of the man called Yisrael; this was not until Sinai. (Even though Hashem called him Yisrael below (35:10), surely the verse "Lo Yochelu Bnei Yisrael" (32:33) took effect (a) immediately or (b) at Matan Torah. It did not take effect from when Hashem called Yaakov "Yisrael." - PF)

2)

Elsewhere, the Torah discusses Binyan of a Mizbe'ach. Why does it say here "va'Yatzev"?

1.

Ha'amek Davar: He merely arranged rocks one on top of another, without (e.g.) mud to connect them. Even though it is not perfectly smooth like this, and a tiny protrusion or recession disqualifies a Mizbe'ach, it is Kosher for a private Bamah (altar).

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

3)

Rashi writes: "Because Hashem was with him, to save him, Yaakov named the Mizbe'ach after that miracle." What does this mean?

1.

Gur Aryeh: It was due to Yaakov's Avodah that Hashem performed miracles for him. Yaakov therefore named the Mizbe'ach, the site for his Avodah, for this relationship. 1


1

Gur Aryeh: In the same way that Leah named Reuven and Shimon for the events that brought about Hashem granting her these children.

4)

Rashi writes: "Va'Yikra Lo Kel Elokei Yisrael - ... But our Sages interpreted, Hashem referred to Yaakov as 'El.'" What is the indication for this in the Pasuk?

1.

Gur Aryeh: The simple explanation would have been clearer, had the verse said, 'And Yaakov called it, 'Kel Elokei Yisrael.'' Since it does not write this, the implied pronoun "He" must be referring to Hashem. "And He [Elokei Yisrael] called him [i.e. Yaakov], 'El.'"

5)

Rashi writes: "Hashem referred to Yaakov as 'El.'" What does this mean?

1.

Gur Aryeh #1: Yaakov's trait was Emes, 1 truth, and truth is "the seal of Hashem." 2 Thus, Yaakov's 'signature' is the same as that of Hashem.

2.

Gur Aryeh #2: Hashem gave the lower realms over to the control of man; 3 and the nations are subservient to Yisrael (provided that Yisrael does the will of Hashem - Devarim 28:1). Yisrael as a whole received their name from Yaakov; thus all of the lower worlds are under Yaakov's domain; he is 'El' over the lower worlds.

3.

Gur Aryeh #3: Yaakov's trait was Kedushah, the trait of holiness, removed from anything material or physical. Therefore, he is referred to as 'El' in the lower worlds. 4


1

Cf. Michah 7:20; refer to 26:5:3.4:1.

2

Shabbos 55a.

3

See Bereishis 1:26; refer to 1:26:5.1.

4

Gur Aryeh compares this to the event on his way to Charan, when all the stones Yaakov had put under his head were unified into one stone (see Rashi to 28:11). Perhaps he means that Yaakov unified all of the disparate aspects of the world into one Tzurah, stature and purpose. Also refer to 28:11:8.2:1 and to 22:3:5.1:2 with the notes there. (EK)

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