1)

(a)Still in connection with a Tumtum she'Nikra, what does ...

1. ... Rav Sheravyah learn from the word "ve'Yaldah" (in the Pasuk in Tazri'a "Ishah ki Sazri'a ve'Yaldah Zachar ve'Tam'ah Shiv'as Yamim")?

2. ... Rav Shizbi learn from the same word in the Pasuk ("Ishah ki Sazri'a ve'Yaldah Zachar ... u'va'Yom ha'Shemini Yimol")?

(b)In the first Halachah, should the Tumtum turn out to a girl, for how many days will her mother be Tamei? What do we learn from the word "Seiled" ("ve'Im Nekeivah Seiled, ve'Tam'ah Shevu'ayim")?

1)

(a)Still in connection with a Tumtum she'Nikra ...

1. ... Rav Sheravya learns from the word "ve'Yaldah" (in the Pasuk in Tazri'a "Ishah ki Sazri'a ve'Yaldah Zachar ve'Tam'ah Shiv'as Yamim") that a woman is only Temei'ah Leidah (for seven days), if the baby is known to be a boy when it is born.

2. ... Rav Shizbi learns from the same word in the Pasuk ("Ishah ki Sazri'a ve'Yaldah Zachar ... u'va'Yom ha'Shemini Yimol") that Milah on the eighth day overrides Shabbos if the baby was known to be a boy at birth, but not if it is a Tumtum she'Nikra.

(b)In the first Halachah, should the Tumtum turn out to a girl her mother will not be Tamei for fourteen days (since there too, the Torah writes "ve'Im Nekeivah Seiled, ve'Tam'ah Shevu'ayim", indicating that it is only if the baby is known to ba a girl at birth, that the mother is Tamei for fourteen days.

2)

(a)The Beraisa rules that if a woman has a miscarriage which turns out to be a Tumtum or an Androginus, 'Teishev le'Zachar ve'la'Nekeivah' (she must observe the Tum'ah and Taharah period of both a male and a female). What is an Androginus?

(b)What are the ramifications of this ruling (according to our initial understanding that 'le'Taharah' is literal)?

(c)In any event, this Beraisa disproves Rav Sheravyah (who precludes a Tumtum [even 'she'Nikra'] from the entire Din of Tum'ah and Taharah). Why is it not also a disproof for Rav Shizbi? Seeing as he Darshens "ve'Yaldah" to preclude a Tumtum from Milah overriding Shabbos, why is it not clear that the Tana does not Darshen "ve'Yaldah"?

(d)What alternative Derashah might the Tana (and Rav Shizbi) learn from "Ishah Ki Sazri'a ve'Yaldah"?

2)

(a)The Beraisa rules that if a woman has a miscarriage which turns out to be a Tumtum or an Androginus (a person who has both male and female sex organs) 'Teishev le'Zachar ve'la'Nekeivah' (she must observe the Tum'ah and Taharah period of both a male and a female).

(b)The ramifications of this (according to our initial understanding that 'le'Taharah' is literal) that she keeps fourteen days of Tum'ah (during which time she is Tamei, even without have seen any blood, as if she given birth to a girl) and the remaining nineteen days (out of the thirty-three days) of Taharah (when she is Tahor even if she sees blood) which follow the birth of a boy.

(c)In any event, this Beraisa disproves Rav Sheravyah (who precludes a Tumtum [even 'she'Nikra'] from the entire Din of Tum'ah and Taharah). It is not also a disproof for Rav Shizbi, who Darshens "ve'Yaldah" to preclude a Tumtum from Milah overriding Shabbos because it is possible that the Tana has a Safek whether to Darshen "ve'Yaldah" in this way or not, due to an alternative way of Darshening it. Consequently, he goes le'Chumra both ways (and this is also the opinion of Rav Shizbi).

(d)The alternative Derashah that the Tana (and Rav Shizbi) learns from "Ishah Ki Sazri'a ve'Yaldah" is the Derashah that if a woman 'sows' first, she will give birth to a boy, and vice-versa.

3)

(a)What problem do we have with the above answer? What ought the Tana to have said, had he been in a Safek?

(b)In short, the woman ought not to have any days of Taharah at all. Why not?

(c)Seeing as the woman has to observe fourteen days of Tum'ah anyway, what is then the point of inserting 'le'Zachar'?

(d)Since we do not offer an answer to this Kashya anyway, why do we not conclude 'Tiyuvta' (like we just did on Rav Sheravyah)?

3)

(a)The problem with the above answer is that, seeing as it is now a Safek whether she has the days of Tum'ah and Taharah at all, the Tana ought then to have said 'Teishev le'Tum'ah, le'Taharah u'le'Nidah'.

(b)In short, the woman ought not to have any days of Taharah at all because the moment the fourteen days of Tum'ah for a girl have passed, in the event that she sees blood, she should be considered a Nidah mi'Safek.

(c)In spite of the fact that the woman has to observe fourteen days of Tum'ah anyway, the Tana inserts 'le'Zachar', because it will affect her status should she see blood on the thirty-fourth day and then again on the forty-first. If the baby was not a boy, then the first sighting was that of Nidus, and the second of Zivus (which requires seven clean days and a Korban), whereas if it was, then the first sighting will have taken place during the days of Taharah following the birth, and the second sighting will be one of Nidus (which renders her Tamei for seven straight days, and does not require a Korban).

(d)Despite the fact that we do not offer any answer to this Kashya, we do not conclude 'Tiyuvta' (like we just did on Rav Sheravyah) because we could simply answer by amending the Beraisa to read 'Teishev le'Zachar, la'Nekeivah u'le'Nidah'.

4)

(a)We learned a Beraisa in support of Rebbi Ami ('Tumtum she'Nikra ... ') "Ben", 've'Lo Tumtum', "Bechor" 've'Lo Safek'. We explain that this comes to preclude from the statement of Rava. What did Rava say about a man whose two wives gave birth to two babies simultaneously, one of them to a Bechor, in the event that the babies were mixed-up from birth, without knowing which one is the Bechor?

(b)Ravin went to great lengths to discover the Halachah in this case. What did he learn from Rebbi Yanai, who distinguished between 'Hukru ve'li'Besof Nis'arvu' and 'Nis'arvu ve'li'Besof Hukru'?

(c)What is the source for this Chumra?

(d)What was Rava's reaction to Rebbi Yanai's ruling?

4)

(a)We learned a Beraisa in support of Rebbi Ami ('Tumtum she'Nikra ... ') "Ben", 've'Lo Tumtum', "Bechor" 've'Lo Safek'. We explain that this comes to preclude from the statement of Rava, who said that if a man's two wives gave birth to two babies simultaneously, one of them to a Bechor, and they were mixed-up from birth, the one writes the other a Harsha'ah (a document authorizing him to claim the Bechorah in his stead, should he be the Bechor), to claim the Chelek Bechorah on his brother's behalf, should he be the actual Bechor, and on his own behalf, should he be the Bechor..

(b)Ravin went to great lengths to discover the Halachah in this case. Eventually, he learned from Rebbi Yanai that in a case of 'Hukru ve'li'Besof Nis'arvu' (if the babies only became mixed-up after they had been recognized), a Harsha'ah helps, but not in a case of 'Nis'arvu ve'li'Besof Hukru' (where they were mixed-up at birth, even if they were later recognized).

(c)The source for this Chumra (in the latter case) is "Bechor", 've'Lo Safek', as we just learned from the Beraisa.

(d)Rava's reaction to Rebbi Yanai's ruling was to retract from his original ruling and to concede to the latter's explanation.

5)

(a)How did Rava originally explain the Beraisa, before hearing the true explanation from Rebbi Yanai? What did he learn from ...

1. ... "ve'Hayah ha'Ben"?

2. ... "ha'Bechor"?

(b)In which point did Rebbi Yanai enlighten him? How does the Derashah differ, according to Rebbi Yanai?

5)

(a)Before hearing the true explanation from Rebbi Yanai, Rava thought that the Tana learns from ...

1. ... "ve'Hayah ha'Ben" that the baby must be known to be a boy from the time of birth, and not a Tumtum.

2. ... "ha'Bechor" nothing other than a Bechor receives a double portion.

(b)According to Rebbi Yanai "ve'Hayah" refers to "ha'Bechor" as well as to "ha'Ben", in which case, both must be clarified at the time of birth; otherwise he will not receive the Chelek Bechorah.

127b----------------------------------------127b

6)

(a)The Bnei Akra de'Agma asked Shmuel what the Din will be if Reuven was established as the Bechor, but his father declared Shimon the Bechor. What do we mean by 'established'?

(b)What did Shmuel reply?

(c)Bearing in mind that this depends on a Machlokes Tana'im (as we shall now see), what is the basis of Shmuel's ruling?

6)

(a)The Bnei Akra de'Agma asked Shmuel what the Din will be if Reuven was established through hearsay, as the Bechor, but his father declared Shimon the Bechor.

(b)Shmuel replied that Reuven and Shimon will have to write out a Shtar Harsha'ah for each other, so that between them, they will be able to claim the Chelek Bechorah from the other brothers.

(c)Bearing in mind that this hinges on a Machlokes Tana'im (as we shall now see) Shmuel's ruling is based on the fact that he did not know which opinion is Halachah.

7)

(a)What does Rebbi Yehudah ...

1. ... learn from the word "Yakir" (in the Pasuk "Ki es ha'Bechor ben ha'Senu'ah Yakir")?

2. ... say about a father who is a Kohen declaring his son to be a ben Gerushah or Chalutzah (and therefore Pasul li'Kehunah)?

(b)What do the Rabanan learn from the word "Yakir"?

7)

(a)Rebbi Yehudah ...

1. ... learns the word "Yakir" (in the Pasuk "Ki es ha'Bechor ben ha'Senu'ah Yakir") that a father is believed to declare one of his sons to be the Bechor, even though this clashes with the Chazakah.

2. ... also learns that just as he is believed concerning the Bechorah, so too, is a father who is a Kohen believed to declare his son a ben Gerushah or Chalutzah (whom the Rabanan decreed to be a Chalal, because he is similar to a ben Gerushah), and therefore Pasul li'Kehunah.

(b)The Rabanan learn from the word "Yakir" that if the father arrives in a new town where he and his children are as yet unknown, he is believed (but not against a Chazakah).

8)

(a)Bearing in mind that the issue of Ne'emanus here concerns which son receives the Chelek Bechorah, what problem do we have with the Rabanan's Derashah from "Yakir"?

(b)Why do we confine the Kashya to the Rabanan? Why is there no Kashya on Rebbi Yehudah?

(c)What do we answer?

(d)How will Rebbi Meir, who holds 'Adam Makneh Davar she'Lo Ba le'Olam', establish "Yakir"? What makes us think that Rebbi Meir is involved in this Machlokes?

8)

(a)Bearing in mind that the issue of Ne'emanus here concerns which son receives the Chelek Bechorah, the problem we have with the Rabanan is why they require a Derashah from "Yakir", seeing as the father has a 'Migo' in that he is able to give him his property anyway as a Matanah, even to a stranger, why should he not be believed to declare one of his sons the Bechor, without a Pasuk?

(b)We confine the Kashya to the Rabanan because, according to Rebbi Yehudah, we need the Pasuk to teach us that the father is believed even against a Chazakah (in which case a 'Migo' will not help).

(c)We answer that the father is believed even with regard to property that he has yet to obtain (and which he would not be able to give his son as a Matanah, due to the principle 'Ein Adam Makneh Davar she'Lo Ba le'Olam'.

(d)Rebbi Meir, who holds 'Adam Makneh Davar she'Lo Ba le'Olam' (and who is generally the Bar Plugta of Rebbi Yehudah), will establish "Yakir" by property which the father will only receive when he is a Goses, and which he cannot be Makneh in advance because he will be physically unable to.

9)

(a)Who is the author of the Beraisa which states 'Hayu Muchzakin Bo ...

1. ... she'Hu Bechor, va'Amar Aviv al Acher she'Hu Bechor, Ne'eman'?

2. ... she'Eino Bechor, va'Amar Bechor Hu, Eino Ne'eman'?

9)

(a)The author of the Beraisa which states 'Hayu Muchzakin Bo ...

1. ... she'Hu Bechor, va'Amar Aviv al Acher she'Hu Bechor, Ne'eman' is Rebbi Yehudah.

2. ... she'Eino Bechor, va'Amar Bechor Hu, Eino Ne'eman' is the Rabanan.

10)

(a)In a case where someone declares 'Beni Hu, ve'Chazar ve'Amar Avdi Hu', Rebbi Yochanan rules that his second statement is not believed. Why, in the reverse case ('Avdi Hu, ve'Chazar ve'Amar Beni Hu'), does he rule that he is?

(b)Then why does he not also believe him in the first case, on the grounds that he is really his Eved, and he called him 'Beni, because he loves him like a son?

(c)If however, he is passing through customs, Rebbi Yochanan reverses the ruling. At which stage does he refer to him as 'Beni' in this case, and at which stage, as 'Avdi'?

(d)Why, if he says first 'Beni' and then 'Avdi', is he believed there, but not in the reverse case?

10)

(a)Rebbi Yochanan says 'Bni Hu, ve'Chazar ve'Amar Avdi Hu, Eino Ne'eman'. In the reverse case ('Avdi Hu, ve'Chazar ve'Amar Bni Hu' however, he rules 'Ne'eman') because we say, he really is his son, and the reason that he first called him 'Avdi' was because he served him like an Eved.

(b)We do not believe him in the first case, on the grounds that he is is really his Eved, and he called him 'Bni, because he loves him like a son because no-one has such a close relationship with his Eved.

(c)If however, he is passing through customs, Rebbi Yochanan reverses the ruling. In that case, he refers to him as 'Bni' as he passes through, and as 'Avdi', later, once he leaves the domain of the tax-men.

(d)There he rules, that if he first referred to him as 'Bni' and then as 'Avdi', he is believed, but not vice-versa because seeing as one pays taxes on Avadim but not on one's children, one would expect him to refer to his Eved as Bni as long as he is in vicinity of the tax men (to avoid having to pay taxes), but not vice-versa.

11)

(a)We query Rebbi Yochanan from the Beraisa 'Hayah Meshamsho ke'Ben, u'Ba ve'Amar Beni Hu, ve'Chazar ve'Amar Avdi Hu, Eino Ne'eman'. What does the Tana rule in the Seifa 'Hayah Meshamsho ke'Eved, u'Ba ve'Amar Avdi Hu, ve'Chazar ve'Amar u'Beni Hu'?

(b)How does this Beraisa pose a strong Kashya on Rebbi Yochanan?

(c)Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak reconciles Rebbi Yochanan with the Beraisa with by establishing the latter by Avda Meitzar Me'ah. What is 'Avda Meitzar Me'ah'? How does that answer the Kashya?

(d)How will this also help us to understand the excessive Lashon of the Beraisa?

11)

(a)We query Rebbi Yochanan from the Beraisa 'Hayah Meshamsho ke'Ven, u'Va ve'Amar Bni Hu, ve'Chazar ve'Amar Avdi Hu, Eino Ne'eman'. The Tana rules in the Seifa 'Hayah Meshamsho ke'Eved, u'Ba ve'Amar Avdi Hu, ve'Chazar ve'Amar Bni Hu Eino Ne'eman' (like he ruled in the Reisha).

(b)This Beraisa poses a strong Kashya on Rebbi Yochanan who believes 'Avdi Hu, ve'Chazar ve'Amar Bni Hu', even where we did not see his son serving him like an Eved, so he certainly ought to believe him where we did (as in the Beraisa).

(c)Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak reconciles Rebbi Yochanan with the Beraisa with by establishing the latter by Avda Meitzar Me'ah which means that he called him (not just 'Avdi', but) 'Avda Meitzar Me'ah', meaning that he is the ideal Eved, who is worth a hundred Dinarim, something that no-one would say about his son.

(d)This will also explain why the Tana adds 'Hayah Meshamsho ke'Eved', to stress that even then, he is not believed when he later says 'Bni Hu'.

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